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Which statement best describes bipolar II disorder?
- A It involves a history of both mania and hypomania occurring at different times You picked ✕
- B It is diagnosed after a single hypomanic episode even when no major depressive episode has occurred You picked ✕
- C It requires hypomanic episodes with psychotic features and at least one major depressive episode You picked ✕
- D It involves hypomanic and major depressive episodes, with no history of mania You picked ✓
- E It involves manic episodes without any requirement for depressive episodes You picked ✕
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The answer is D: It involves hypomanic and major depressive episodes, with no history of mania
Explanation
Why D is correct
See Bipolar Disorder. Option D is correct because bipolar II disorder is defined by at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode, with no history of a full manic episode. Hypomania is a milder form of mania: the mood is elevated or irritable and energy is increased, but the episode is shorter, there are no psychotic features, and it does not cause marked impairment or need hospital care. This is why a history of past highs matters: standard antidepressant treatment is less effective in bipolar depression and can carry a risk of inducing mania or rapid cycling (many mood episodes in a year). The absence of mania is what separates bipolar II from bipolar I, in which at least one manic episode is present. A helpful memory aid is that type I has the big high, while type II has the smaller high plus the depression.
- Definition: bipolar II disorder has at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode.
- Key exclusion: there is no history of a full manic episode.
- Hypomania: milder, with no psychosis and no marked impairment or need for admission.
Why the other options are incorrect
- A. It involves a history of both mania and hypomania occurring at different times: A history of mania places the person in bipolar I disorder, because one manic episode is enough, even if hypomanic episodes also occur. Bipolar II is defined by the absence of mania. This would be wrong as a description of bipolar II. Your answer
- B. It is diagnosed after a single hypomanic episode even when no major depressive episode has occurred: Bipolar II requires at least one major depressive episode as well as a hypomanic episode, so a single hypomanic episode alone is not enough. This statement leaves out the depressive component that is central to the diagnosis. It would fit a question about a diagnosis based solely on hypomania. Your answer
- C. It requires hypomanic episodes with psychotic features and at least one major depressive episode: Bipolar II is defined by hypomanic and major depressive episodes, but hypomania by definition does not include psychotic features. If psychosis is present the episode is manic, which would make the diagnosis bipolar I disorder. It would fit a question about the severity threshold between mania and hypomania. Your answer
- E. It involves manic episodes without any requirement for depressive episodes: This describes bipolar I disorder, which requires at least one manic episode and does not need depressive episodes. Mania is the feature that is excluded in bipolar II. It would be the answer for a question about bipolar I. Your answer
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More questions from this set. Start the quiz to answer them and see each explanation.
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1
During an episode of elevated mood and increased energy, which feature, if present, indicates mania rather than hypomania?
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2
What is the primary pharmacological action of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors used to treat depression?
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