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The Menopause Quiz
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Which hormonal change is primarily responsible for most troublesome menopausal symptoms?
- A Reduced follicle-stimulating hormone secretion from the pituitary gland You picked ✕
- B Reduced oestrogen levels due to declining ovarian function You picked ✓
- C Excess progesterone secretion from the ovaries You picked ✕
- D Increased prolactin secretion from the pituitary gland You picked ✕
- E Increased androgen production from the adrenal glands You picked ✕
Correct!
Incorrect
The answer is B: Reduced oestrogen levels due to declining ovarian function
Explanation
Why B is correct
See Causes. Option B is correct. Women are born with a fixed number of eggs, and the menopause is the point at which that store is used up and the ovaries stop working. As follicles (the small fluid-filled sacs in the ovary that each contain an egg) fail, the ovary makes less oestrogen and less inhibin (a hormone that restrains FSH). Falling oestrogen disrupts the menstrual cycle and causes the typical symptoms: vasomotor symptoms, meaning hot flushes and night sweats caused by unstable temperature control, as well as vaginal dryness and mood changes. Oestrogen normally holds back the pituitary gland, the small hormone gland beneath the brain, through negative feedback (a signal that shuts down its own source). When oestrogen falls, the brake is released and FSH and luteinising hormone (LH) rise. The usual menopausal pattern is therefore low oestrogen with persistently high FSH and LH, but the raised FSH is a result of ovarian failure and not the cause of the symptoms. Memory aid: the symptoms follow what is lost (oestrogen), while the blood test shows the pituitary shouting for it (FSH).
- Cause: the egg store is used up and follicles fail, so the ovaries make less oestrogen and inhibin.
- Symptoms: they follow falling oestrogen: hot flushes, night sweats, vaginal dryness and mood changes.
- Pituitary: the negative feedback brake is released, so FSH and LH rise.
- Blood test: low oestrogen with persistently high FSH and LH.
Why the other options are incorrect
- A. Reduced follicle-stimulating hormone secretion from the pituitary gland: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) rises in the menopause rather than falling, because the failing ovaries no longer give enough negative feedback to the pituitary. The raised FSH is a response to the problem and is not what causes the symptoms. Your answer
- C. Excess progesterone secretion from the ovaries: Progesterone is made after ovulation by the corpus luteum, and as ovulation becomes less frequent its production falls rather than rising. Excess progesterone is not a feature of the menopause and would not cause hot flushes or vaginal dryness. Your answer
- D. Increased prolactin secretion from the pituitary gland: Raised prolactin from the pituitary gland can cause unexpected milk production and disturb periods, as in a prolactinoma. It is not the mechanism of the menopause, and it would not explain the pattern of symptoms seen as the ovaries fail. Your answer
- E. Increased androgen production from the adrenal glands: Adrenal androgens are not increased in a way that causes menopausal symptoms. Androgens may become relatively more prominent once oestrogen falls, but that relative change is not the main driver of hot flushes or vaginal dryness. Your answer
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More questions from this set. Start the quiz to answer them and see each explanation.
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1
A 52-year-old woman with an intact uterus has had no periods for more than 12 months, is not using hormonal contraception and is otherwise suitable for HRT. Which regimen is usually most appropriate for her troublesome menopausal symptoms?
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2
A woman considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is particularly concerned about blood clots because of a strong family history of venous thromboembolism. Which HRT approach is associated with the lowest venous thromboembolism risk?
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